t1riel
Legend
Silver Level
I find it interesting how you could have the highest percentage to win after the flop yet you are behing currently. Let me give you an example:
You and Player A are the only players who are in the pot. The blinds are 400/800. You just raised to 1600 since you're in the Big Blind. Player A called. You are holding: . The flop comes:
. Player A bets 1000 in chips and you have 2500 left so you push all in. Player A has 5000 left so he calls. Player A has . Right now, you are behind since you only have King High and Player A has a pair. Yet, you have a 52.32% chance of winning this hand. Now, looking at the percentage, it was a good push. I just find it a little illogical that you have the highest percentage to win yet you are behind in the hand. Just a thought.
You and Player A are the only players who are in the pot. The blinds are 400/800. You just raised to 1600 since you're in the Big Blind. Player A called. You are holding: . The flop comes:
. Player A bets 1000 in chips and you have 2500 left so you push all in. Player A has 5000 left so he calls. Player A has . Right now, you are behind since you only have King High and Player A has a pair. Yet, you have a 52.32% chance of winning this hand. Now, looking at the percentage, it was a good push. I just find it a little illogical that you have the highest percentage to win yet you are behind in the hand. Just a thought.